CUET PG Agriculture 2022 Solved Paper (English) — Agri Master Mind

Q26. 1000 grains weight of wheat ranges between _________ grams. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • 20-30

  • 20-70

  • 120-220

  • 35-50

Q27. Who is known as father of tillage? (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • O.P. Gautam

  • Jethro Tull

  • Liebig

  • J.B. Lawes

Q29. Arrange these crops in decreasing order of their crop duration under same agro-climatic conditions: A. Cotton B. Sugarcane C. Rice D. Greengram E. Pearl millet. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • A, C, B, E, D

  • B, A, C, E, D

  • B, C, E, D, A

  • A, B, E, C, D

Q30. Given below are two statements: Statement I: Orobanche (Broomrape) is a total-root parasitic weed in rapeseed mustard. Statement II: Striga (witch weed) is a total stem-parasitic weed of sorghum. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

  • Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

  • Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

  • Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Q31. Match List I with respective critical stage of irrigation of crops List II: (A) Blue water (B) Virtual water (C) Black water (D) Green Water. List II: (I) Water used in production of Agricultural products (II) Domestic sewage or Industrial Waste (III) Soil moisture and water present in plants (IV) Water present in sea, lakes, rivers etc. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

  • A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

  • A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

  • A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

Q32. Which of the following mechanisms do not encourage cross pollination? (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Male sterility

  • Self-incompatibility

  • Dioecism

  • Chasmogamy

Q33. A plant with somatic chromosome number of  (AA BB CCCCC) is known as: (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Septasomic

  • Hexasomic

  • Pentasomic

  • Tetrasomic

Q34. Which one of the following breeding approaches can be used for transfer of desirable successive gene in otherwise good variety? (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Backcross method

  • Pedigree method

  • Bulk method

  • Single seed discount method

Q35. The development of embryo from egg cell without fertilization is referred as: (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Apogamy

  • Apospory

  • Parthenogenesis

  • Androgamy

Q36. Read the statements below on consequences of inbreeding and choose the correct statement: (A) Variability reduced significantly within family. (B) Increase in homozygous individuals. (C) Decrease in heterozygous individuals. (D) Selection within family will be effective. (E) Recessive genes will be marked by dominical counterpart. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • A, B and C

  • A, B and D

  • B, C and D

  • C, D and E

Q37. Assertion A: After DNA replication, a new double helix consisted of one old strand and other is newly synthesized strand. Reason R: DNA replication is both conservative and semi-conservative types. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

  • Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

  • A is true but R is false.

  • A is false but R is true.

Q38. Statement I: Taichung Native 1 is the first dwarf variety of rice developed by crossing. Statement II: IR-8 is the first dwarf rice hybrid released for cultivation. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

  • Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

  • Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

  • Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Q39. Consider the following statements in reference to cross pollinated crops: (A) Inbred lines based single cross hybrid is homozygous and homogeneous. (B) Inbred lines based single cross hybrid is heterozygous and homogeneous. (C) Composites are heterozygous and heterogeneous. (D) General combining ability (GCA) of the component lines are tested in composite variety development. (E) General combining ability of the component lines are tested for development of synthetic cultivar. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • A, C and D only

  • A, D and E only

  • B, C and E only

  • A, B and E only

Q40. How many kinds of genotypes are possible in , if four genes are segregating independently? (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • 243

  • 81

  • 27

  • 9

Q41. Match List I with List II: (A) Metacentric (B) Acrocentric (C) Telocentric (D) Acentric. List II: (I) Chromosome without centromere (II) Centromere localized approximately in mid-way of a chromosome (III) Centromere placed to an arm close to one end of the chromosome (IV) Centromere at the very end of the chromosome. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

  • A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

  • A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

  • A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Q42. Statement I: Soluble sources of Ca are gypsum and phosphogypsum. Statement II: Gypsum is used for reclamation of sodic soil. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

  • Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

  • Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

  • Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Q45. Assertion A: The colloidal surfaces of humus are negatively charged. Reason R: The negative charges arise from exposed functional groups like hydroxyl, carboxylic or phenolic. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

  • Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

  • A is true but R is false.

  • A is false but R is true.

Q46. Which one of the following is aerobic asymbiotic -fixing bacteria? (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Rhizobium

  • Frankia

  • Clostridium

  • Azotobacter

Q47. Study of soil in relation to growth and development of plant is known as: (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Pedology

  • Morphology

  • Edaphology

  • Soil genesis

Q48. Volatile substance emitted by the ripening fruits is known as: (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Leinetin

  • Ethylene

  • Adenine

  • ABA

Q49. Match List I with List II: (A) Ribosomes (B) Peroxisomes (C) Mitochondria (D) Golgi-bodies. List II: (I) Power house of cell (II) Photorespiration (III) Cell wall (IV) Protein synthesis. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

  • A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

  • A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

  • A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

Q50. In  plants, the first stable product of photosynthesis is: (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Phosphoenolpyruvate

  • Oxaloacetate

  • Phosphoglyceric acid

  • Ribulose

Q51. One molecule of glucose after respiration produces: (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

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Q52. Meloidogyne incognita which causes stunting of gladiolus plants and their yellowing is: (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Root knot nematode

  • Fungi

  • Mycoplasma

  • Bacteria

Q53. Eriosoma lanigerum, Woolly aphid, is an important pest in which of the following? (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Tomato

  • Carnation

  • Apple

  • Black pepper

Q54. According to the botanical classification cashew belongs to which family among the following: (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Lauraceae

  • Apiaceae

  • Caricaceae

  • Anacardiaceae

Q55. Which among the following is an edible poded variety of garden peas of dual purpose? (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Kashi Mukti

  • Bonneville

  • Arka Apoorva

  • Palam Priya

Q56. Which of the following is responsible for rooting of semi hardwood cuttings of Hibiscus? (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Benzyl adenine

  • Ethylene

  • Ascorbic acid

  • Indole Butyric Acid

Q57. Where is the Central Institute of Arid Horticulture located? (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • New Delhi

  • Bikaner

  • Lucknow

  • Jodhpur

Q58. Match List I with List II: (A) Pear (B) Pomegranate (C) Litchi (D) Grape. List II: (I) Rose scented (II) Bartlett (III) Anab-e-shahi (IV) Bedana. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

  • A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

  • A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

  • A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Q59. Late Blight is an important disease of potato. (A) Phytophthora is the causal organism of Late Blight in potato. (B) Kufri Chipsona is resistant to late blight in the plants. (C) Late Blight is a viral disease of potato. (D) Disease free seed should be planted. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • A, B and C only

  • B, C and D only

  • A, B and D only

  • A, C and D only

Q60. Statement I: Apomixis is an asexual reproductive process that does not involve nuclear or cellular fusion. Statement II: Embryo may develop from an unfertilized egg cell or another cell within the embryo sac. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

  • Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

  • Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

  • Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Q61. Statement I: Auxins are a group of plant bio-regulators which are primarily responsible for ripening of fruits. Statement II: Fruits are basically of two types on the basis of ripening: climacteric and non climacteric. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

  • Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

  • Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

  • Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Q62. Micropropagation is an efficient alternative method of vegetative propagation since: (A) True-to-type plants are produced. (B) Multiplication of disease and virus free plants is possible. (C) Round-the-year production of plants is not possible. (D) Rare and endangered varieties can be conserved. (E) Cost of production and infrastructure cost in very low. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • A, B and E

  • B, C and D

  • A, B and D

  • A, C and E

Q63. Assertion A: Rejuvenation is an effective technology for improving productivity of unproductive orchards. Reason R: Rejuvenation does not benefit trees affected by disease, heart rot and cold injury. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

  • Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

  • A is true but R is false.

  • A is false but R is true.

Q64. Biting and Chewing type of mouth parts are present in: (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Grasshopper

  • Housefly

  • Bug

  • Moth

Q65. National Centre for Integrated Pest Management (NCIPM) is located at: (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Lucknow

  • Coimbatore

  • Hyderabad

  • New Delhi

Q66. Primitive living winged insects belonging to the order: (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Ephemeroptera and Odonata

  • Lepidoptera and Trichoptera

  • Orthoptera and Dictyoptera

  • Thysanoptera and Hemiptera

Q67. In which part of insect body, Johnston’s organs are present? (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Legs

  • Antennae

  • Thorax

  • Abdomen

Q68. Assertion A: Filter chamber is not found in aphid. Reason R: Filter chamber is aphid allows excess water to pass directly from anterior part of the stomach to the intestine by diffusion. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

  • Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

  • A is correct but R is not correct.

  • A is not correct but R is correct.

Q69. Common polyphagous crop pests are: (A) Desert locust. (B) Brinjal shoot and fruit borer. (C) Cotton bollworm. (D) Potato tuber moth. (E) Red hairy caterpillar. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • B, C and D

  • A, C and E

  • C, D and E

  • A, B and D

Q70. Statement I: Caddis flies belonging to order Trichoptera. Statement II: Fruit flies do not belonging to order Diptera. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

  • Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

  • Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

  • Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Q71. Plant origin insecticides are: (A) Nicotine (B) Arsenicals (C) Pyrethrum (D) Phosphamidon (E) Rotenone. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • A, B and C only

  • B, D and E only

  • A, C and E only

  • C, D and E only

Q72. Sorghum crop is commonly attacked by: (A) Sorghum stem borer (B) White Ants (Termite) (C) Wheat Armyworm (D) Sorghum shoot fly (E) Sorghum Earhead Gall Midge. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • A, C and D only

  • A, D and E only

  • B, C and D only

  • C, D and E only

Q73. Match List I with List II: (A) Larvae burrow into apple fruits and feed on the pulp (B) Pink colour encrustation on apple fruits (C) Ashy coat on apple stem with galled root (D) Circular bore hole on apple stem. List II: (I) San Jose Scale (II) Woolly apple aphid (III) Apple stem borer (IV) Codling moth. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

  • A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

  • A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

  • A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

Q74. The first Indian Cooperative Societies Act was passed in the year: (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • 1901

  • 1904

  • 1919

  • 1920

Q76. Which of the following represents comprehensive cost of cultivation? (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Cost A1

  • Cost A2

  • Cost B

  • Cost C

Q77. Which of the following is correct? (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • MC curve is a continuous falling curve

  • AVC curve lies about ATC curve

  • When MC curve is below ATC curve, ATC is falling

  • When MC curve is above ATC curve, ATC is falling

Q78. A molecule causing plant disease having spiral or helical structure and culturable on artificial nutrient medium is associated with: (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Xanthomonas

  • Xylella

  • Spiroplasma

  • Spirochete

Q79. Which systemic fungicide is used as seed treatment to control loose smut disease of wheat? (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Thiabendazole

  • Carboxin

  • Metalaxyl

  • Triadimefon

Q80. Which of the following germs has coenocytic mycelium? (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Pythium

  • Fusarium

  • Alternaria

  • Erysiphe

Q81. What should be optimum temperature range for the growth of mesophilic bacteria? (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

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Q82. Statement I: Berberis plant does not play any role in the perpetuation of Puccinia graminis, sp. tritici. Statement II: Rust pathogens spread from plant to plant mostly by wind blown spores. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

  • Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

  • Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

  • Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Q83. Green ear disease is associated to which of the following crops? (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Pearl Millet

  • Sorghum

  • Maize

  • Pea

Q84. Which of the following is NOT associated to cause wilt disease in plants? (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Fusarium

  • Streptomyces

  • Ralstonia

  • Verticillium

Q85. What type of symptoms associated to the mechanism of growth disruption of the plants? (A) Dwarfing (B) Rots (C) Etiolation (D) Hypoplasia (E) Wilt. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • A, B and C only

  • B, C and D only

  • A, D and E only

  • A, C and D only

Q86. Match List I with List II: (A) M.W. Beijerinck (B) Antony van Leeuwenhoek (C) Robert Koch (D) T.J. Burrill. List II: (I) First to observe microorganisms (II) Discovered bacterial disease of plants (III) Confirmed finding of first Virus (IV) Koch’s postulates. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

  • A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

  • A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

  • A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

Q87. Which of the following is not a seeding machinery? (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Country plough with pora

  • Zero-till-drill

  • The animal-drawn dufan

  • Mouldboard plough

Q88. Among the following crops, which has the highest mechanization index? (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Sugarcane

  • Rice

  • Wheat

  • Groundnut

Q89. Which of the following tillage equipments, is a secondary tillage equipment? (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Mouldboard plough

  • Country plough

  • Rotavator

  • Cultivator

Q90. What will be the error degree of freedom for testing 5 varieties of wheat in Latin Square Design? (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • 12

  • 8

  • 4

  • 10

Q91. If the yield of paddy from different fields are 6.0, 4.9, 6.0, 5.8, 6.2, 6.0, 6.3, 4.8, 6.0, 5.7 and 6.0 tonnes per hectare, the modal value is ______ tons per hectare. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • 6.2

  • 5.8

  • 6.3

  • 6.0

Q92. Match List I with List II: (A) Training and visit program (B) National Extension Service (C) Intensive Agricultural Area Programme (D) Labs to Land Programme. List II: (I) 1979 (II) 1964 (III) 1974 (IV) 1953. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

  • A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

  • A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

  • A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

Q93. ITK stands for: (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Indian Traditional Knowledge

  • Indigenous Truth Knowledge

  • Indigenous Technical Knowledge

  • Indian Technological Knowledge

Q94. Statement I: Kisan Call Centers are providing agricultural advice and information to the farmers across the country using toll free telephone numbers “1800-180-1551”. Statement II: Kisan Call Centre was launched in the year 2008. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

  • Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

  • Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

  • Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Q95. Match List I with List II: (A) Innovators (B) Early Majority (C) Late Majority (D) Laggards. List II: (I) Skeptical (II) Traditional (III) Deliberate (IV) Venturesome. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

  • A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

  • A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

  • A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

Q96. Assertion A: Personal localite channels are local leaders and local people who belong to receivers own social system. Reason R: Extension agents are personal cosmopolite channels and are from outside the social system of the receiver. (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

  • Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation

  • A is true but R is false.

  • A is false but R is true.

Q97. Accepted ways of behaviour in society are: (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Folkways

  • Conventions

  • Taboos

  • Rituals

Q98. What is the ideal size of flash card preferred for for a small group of 10-25 people? (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • $6" \times 10"$ size

  • $10" \times 12"$ size

  • $15" \times 20"$ size

  • $24" \times 32"$ size

Q99. The process of conversion of the subject matter into symbols is termed as: (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Transmission

  • Encoding

  • Decoding

  • Treatment

Q100. The process of collecting and analyzing information from field and secondary sources in a short period of time is: (CUET-PG-AGRI-2022)

  • Participatory Rural Appraisal

  • Rapid Rural Appraisal

  • Participatory Technology Development

  • Rapid Social Analysis